Perhaps someone would explain to me why the DOF would be any different from
what the scale on the lens indicates. It's still a 24mm lens, and just because
it's on a digital whatzis that captures only the central portion of the
projected image, making the FOV equivalent to a 48mm lens on a real -- excuse
me -- on a film camera, shouldn't change the DOF. Should it? Would it? Does
it?
If I duct tape my 150/5.6 Schneider Symmar to the proper extension tube
combination and attach it to an OM body, the DOF in the little-bitty bit I
capture on 35mm film would be the same as the DOF in that same central portion
on a 4x5 in. piece of film.
Please show me the error in my thinking and give two examples.
Walt, using an analog analogy
--
"Anything more than 500 yards from
the car just isn't photogenic." --
Edward Weston
-------------- Original message ----------------------
From: "Piers Hemy" <piers@xxxxxxxx>
>
> Go to http://www.dofmaster.com/dofjs.html and use a custom CoC figure of
> 0.015mm
>
> --
> Piers
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: olympus-owner@xxxxxxxxxx [mailto:olympus-owner@xxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf
> Of James Royall
> Sent: 27 March 2005 08:52
> To: olympus@xxxxxxxxxx
> Subject: [OM] Figuring out depth of field with 4/3 adaptor
[snip]
> But how do I work out depth of field using the scale on the lens? Using the
> 24mm (which becomes a 'standard' 48mm) on an OM at F8 gives an indicated
> depth of field of just over a meter to infinity. Can I do something simple,
> like looking at the DOF for F4 when used with a 4/3 sensor? Or do I have to
> take along my 50mm and see what DOF that would give me on an OM at F8? Or am
> I going to have to have to take some chalk, draw a huge 30 meter ruler on
> the street outside and work out my own scale?
>
> James
>
>
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