As I understand it (and may well be wrong), -ise and -ize endings are
dependent on whether the word is derived from a Greek or Latin root.
Don't ask me which is which! I'm sure one of the better list pedants
will correct me.
In recent times, it's become common usage for the merkins to favor the
-ize exclusively, the poms - sorry - English to favour the -ise style
and a very, very rare few to try and get it right.
Assume that the Americans are usually wrong and that the Scots are
ALWAYS wrong and you can't really go wrong. That sounds about right.
Andrew'F
On 14/06/2004, at 10:22 PM, Piers Hemy wrote:
> Tell us more.
>
> I used to "recognize" a certain spelling as American until a Scotsman
> pointed out my error (not the first time that has happened, of course)
> and
> referred me to OED, which confirmed that -ize has been perfectly
> acceptable
> in these parts for many a year.
>
> But what is the classical connection?
>
> Piers
>
> Insist that the choice of -ise or -ize endings be related to Greek or
> Latin
> roots, not to mere transatlantic ethnicity. This is serious mate
> (unlike
> most of my Greek or latin roots!)
>
> --snip
>
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